Pediatrics
Sample Questions -
(2004)
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QUESTION
8. A 10-month-old
female is brought to your office for a routine health evaluation.
Her diet consists of table food and whole milk and she is
a “good drinker”. Her weight and length are at
the 50th percentile and no changes are noted in her growth
curves. Her physical examination is notable for pallor; otherwise
there are no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin is 7.5 grams per
deciliter and the peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic
hypochromic cells.
Which
of the following is the MOST likely etiology
of this anemia?
A)
Thalassemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Transient viral suppression of her bone marrow
D) Anemia of chronic disease
E) Iron deficiency anemia
ANSWER
8.
E - Iron deficiency
Iron deficiency
anemia is the most common cause of microcytic hypochromic
anemia in this age group. This etiology is also suggested
by the history of whole milk intake. Thalassemia is a possibility
but less likely given the patient's history and the known
frequency of the disease. Sickle cell anemia and transient
viral suppression do not usually present with a microcytic
hypochromic anemia. Anemia of chronic disease is not supported
by the clinical presentation given the healthy physical examination
and weight at the 50th percentile without any changes in her
growth curves.
1.
Behrman RE, Kliegman RM, Jenson HB, Eds. Nelson textbook of
pediatrics, 17th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 2004: 1614-1616.
QUESTION
200. A
previously well 15-year-old girl presents to your emergency
department complaining of severe headache and diplopia. She
has also had a single episode of emesis, which was described
as nonbilious and non-projectile. She had a routine health
examination the previous week at which time she was started
on oral contraception. She denies trauma.
On examination,
she is slightly obese, alert, and cooperative but anxious
teenager. The eye examination is significant for bilateral
papilledema and bilateral inferior nasal visual field defects.
Her neck is supple. The remaining examination, including full
neurological examination, is unremarkable.
Head CT
is unremarkable. Cerebrospinal fluid evaluation has an opening
pressure of 49mm water, 0 WBC, 0 RBC, glucose 68, protein
18, gram stain negative. She reports improvement in the headache
following the lumbar puncture
This teenager
has:
A)
Pseudotumor cerebri
B) A brain tumor not visible on the head CT
C) HSV encephalitis
D) Undeclared head trauma
E) Nothing, she is malingering
ANSWER
200.
A - Pseudotumor cerebri
This
child has pseudotumor cerebri, a condition consisting of signs
and symptoms of elevated intracranial pressure with normal
ventricles and normal CSF. Many things cause pseudotumor cerebri,
including medications (e.g. tetracycline, steroids and oral
contraceptive pills), metabolic or nutritional derangements
(e.g. hypoparathyroidism, Vitamin A excess or deficiency,
iron deficiency anemia and pregnancy), and infections (e.g.
roseola, chronic otitis media). It classically presents with
headache, and/or mild to moderate emesis and/or papilledema.
“Constitutional” symptoms (e.g. failure to thrive,
fatigue), severe emesis, focal neurologic symptoms not referable
to the optic nerve or altered sensorium are all signs that
something other than pseudotumor is the cause. Diagnosis is
made by exclusion of an intracerebral focal lesion and confirmation
of normal ventricles by imaging, measurement of the opening
pressure as well as obtaining cerebrospinal fluid to demonstrate
normal cytology and protein, as well as a thorough neurologic
exam. The treatment is to first remove the “trigger”,
followed by therapeutic lumbar puncture and removal of cerebrospinal
fluid. Alternatively, either steroids or acetazolamide have
shown limited efficacy. Tumors should be visible on CT scans
of the head. The diagnosis of encephalitis is not supported
by the cerebrospinal fluid cytology.
Head trauma severe enough to cause signs and symptoms of elevated
intracranial pressure should have findings demonstrated on
the head CT. There are no reasons to believe that this child
is feigning illness and she has objective signs of neurologic
problems
1.
Behrman RE, Kliegman RM, Jenson HB, Eds. Nelson textbook of
pediatrics, 17th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 2004:2048-9.
QUESTION
221.
A 3-year-old boy is seen in the emergency department after
coughing and gagging while eating a peanut. He now has difficulty
breathing. His physical examination is significant for wheezing
on the right side hemithorax. What radiographic finding is
classic for this condition?
A)
Atelectasis on the side of aspirated content
B) An expiratory film demonstrating air trapping with hyperinflation
of the lung shifting away from aspirated side
C) Bilateral hyperexpansion
D) Peanut seen on the radiograph
E) An inspiratory film demonstrating a left lower lobe consolidation
ANSWER
221. B - An expiratory film demonstrating air trapping with
hyperinflation of the
lung shifting away from aspirated side
In
foreign body aspiration, inspiratory films are typically normal.
In expiration, the lung with the aspirated contents remains
hyperinflated and the mediastinal shift away from the lung
with the aspirated contents occurs. Breath sounds are diminished
on the affected side. Air enters the distal portion of the
lung on inspiration, but is blocked on expiration by the foreign
body producing an obstructive hyperinflation. The peanut is
not radiopaque and will not be visible on the radiograph.
1.
Behrman RE, Kliegman RM, Jenson HB (Eds). Nelson Textbook
of Pediatrics. 17th Edition. Saunders, Philadelphia PA 2004:1410-1411.
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