Internal
Medicine Board Review Written Board Exam
Sample Questions - Book
1 2004
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QUESTION
87. A 28-year-old man with history of Mitral Valve Prolapse
comes to your office complaining of chest pain that began
1 day prior to presentation. He states he has had similar
episodes recently. He describes it as searing pain at the
center of his chest that now radiates to his neck. He denies
an exertional component, diaphoresis, nausea, emesis, abdominal
pain or dyspnea.
Your
nurse has recorded two blood pressures in the right and left
arm that are markedly different however she tells you she
thinks this is because his arms are too long.
Physical
exam reveals a diastolic murmur, no S3, marked scoliosis,
clear lung fields and no edema.
The
MOST likely diagnosis in this patient is?
A)
Marfan’s Syndrome
B) Costochondritis
C) Mitral Valve Prolapse with Mitral Regurgitation
D) C5-6 herniated disc
E) Acute Coronary Syndrome
ANSWER
87. A Marfan’s
Syndrome
This
patient is describing Aortic Dissection, which is a life threatening
emergency carrying a mortality rate of 1% per hour. This patient
most likely has undiagnosed Marfan’s Syndrome given
his wide arm span, scoliosis and valvular disease. Patients
with Marfan’s account for 5-9% of all aortic dissections
and will have classic cystic medial degeneration and are therefore
at high risk to dissect at a young age. This also occurs in
Ehlers Danlos Syndrome. The goal of treatment is to stop the
progression of dissection therefore reducing the risk of rupture.
Costochondritis
would not give this history nor would it lead to unequal blood
pressures. Mitral Valve Prolapse with Mitral Regurgitation
would be a systolic murmur rather than diastolic. A C5-6 herniated
disc typically does not cause chest pain nor would it account
for his diastolic murmur or unequal blood pressures. This
patient could have an acute coronary syndrome but that should
not lead to unequal blood pressures therefore a dissection
must be considered first.
1.
Braunwald: Heart Disease: A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine,
6th ed., 2001:1433.
2.
Goldman: Cecil Textbook of Medicine, 21st ed., 2000:354-356.

QUESTION
232. A 34-year-old mother of 2 who is now 8 weeks pregnant
and works in a pre-school complains of an erythematous rash
on her face and limbs with fever. She remembers a child in
her class had a similar rash 2 weeks ago. She also complains
of joint pains in her hands and some fatigue. (See Appendix
A, Image 3 on Page 269).
On
physical exam she appears non-toxic with a faint salmon colored
rash on her forearms, with a temperature of 38° C. She
has symmetrically swollen metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal
joints. She is up to date on her polio and measles-mumps and
rubella vaccines as a child.
The
MOST likely cause of her illness is:
A)
Parvovirus B-19
B) Enterovirus infection
C) Coxsackie virus
D) Rubella
E) Atypical measles
ANSWER
232. A Parvovirus
B-19
Parvovirus
B-19 is commonly known to infect children and in this case
the exposure to one of her students is the likely source.
The incubation period is from 4-16 days and the virus can
also cause hematologic disturbances, most notably anemia by
arresting erythropoiesis. In addition to the slapped cheek
rash with perioral sparing, which is rare in adults, but can
involve the palms and soles. Arthralgias with synovial swelling
are common in adults, especially women involving primarily
the hands.
In
this woman’s case the issue of pregnancy is important
but studies have shown that fetal hydrops is unlikely even
in the first trimester with this disease. No congenital abnormalities
or long-term sequelae have been attributed to parvovirus B19
infection. The overall risk of serious adverse outcome from
occupational exposure to parvovirus B19 infection during pregnancy
is low (excess early fetal loss in 2-6/1,000 pregnancies and
fetal death from hydrops in 2-5/10,000 pregnancies). It is
not recommended that susceptible pregnant women be excluded
routinely from working with children during epidemics3.
Atypical
measles develops in patients who received killed measles virus
vaccine between 1963 and 1967. The rash of atypical measles
may take many different forms including hemorrhagic, urticarial
and vesicular. This patient’s arthropathy, exposure
in the classroom to a child with slapped cheek-like illness
and the lacy appearance of her rash suggest parvo B-19 virus
infection and make atypical measles less likely. Rubella is
also unlikely given the vaccine history. Coxsackie virus or
hand foot and mouth disease often involves mucosal surfaces
and would unlikely cause the synovial changes described.
1.
Levy R, Weissman A, Blomberg G, Hagay ZJ. Infection by parvovirus
B 19 during pregnancy: a review. Obstet Gynecol Surv. 1997
Apr;52(4):254-9.
2.
Bultmann BD, Klingel K, Sotlar K, Bock CT, Kandolf R. Parvovirus
B19: a pathogen responsible for more than hematologic disorders.
Virchows Arch. 2003 Jan;442(1):8-17. Epub 2002 Nov 14.
3.
Gilbert GL. Parvovirus B19 infection and its significance
in pregnancy. Commun Dis Intell. 2000 Mar;24 Suppl:69-71.
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